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NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is an objective of public key infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Creating the private-public key pair for secure communications
- B. Independently authenticating the validity of the sender's public key
- C. Approving the algorithm to be used during data transmission
- D. Securely distributing secret keys to the communicating parties
Answer: B
Explanation:
An objective of public key infrastructure (PKI) is to independently authenticate the validity of the sender's public key. PKI is a system that uses cryptographic keys to secure communications and transactions. PKI involves a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA) that issues digital certificates that link a public key with an identity. The recipient can use the CA's public key to verify the sender's certificate and public key.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following security mechanisms provides the BEST protection of data when a computer is stolen?
- A. Cryptographic hash function
- B. Password-based access control
- C. Secret key encryption
- D. Digital signature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Secret key encryption, also known as symmetric encryption, involves a single key for both encryption and decryption. This method provides the best protection for data on a computer that is stolen because it renders the data unreadable without the key. Even if the thief has access to the physical hardware, without the secret key, the data remains secure and inaccessible.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following cloud characteristics describes computing capabilities that can be provisioned without human interaction from the service provider?
- A. On-demand self-service
- B. Agile service management
- C. Measured service
- D. Broad network access
Answer: A
Explanation:
The characteristic of cloud computing that allows users to provision computing capabilities without human interaction from the service provider is known as on-demand self-service. This feature enables users to automatically manage their computing resources, such as server time and network storage, as needed, which provides agility and flexibility in resource management.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following features of an anti-malware application is MOST helpful in protecting an organization from the potential of infected computers using a virtual private network (VPN)?
- A. On-demand scanning
- B. Endpoint remote control
- C. Data heuristics
- D. Data packet analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data packet analysis is the most helpful feature of an anti-malware application in protecting an organization from the potential of infected computers using a VPN. This feature involves examining the data packets that are being transmitted over the network. By analyzing these packets, the anti-malware can detect malicious activity or anomalies that may indicate an infection. This is particularly important for VPN traffic, as it is encrypted and not easily inspected by traditional methods.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following is a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon?
- A. SSH
- B. SFTP
- C. VPN
- D. IPsec
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. SSH.
SSH stands for Secure Shell, a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon. SSH allows users to remotely access and execute commands on a server without exposing their credentials or data to eavesdropping, tampering or replay attacks. SSH also supports secure file transfer protocols such as SFTP and SCP1.
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices over a public network such as the Internet. VPN allows users to access resources on a remote network as if they were physically connected to it, while protecting their privacy and identity2.
IPsec stands for Internet Protocol Security, a set of protocols that provides security at the network layer of the Internet. IPsec supports two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. Transport mode encrypts only the payload of each packet, while tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet, including the header. IPsec can be used to secure VPN connections, as well as other applications that require data confidentiality, integrity and authentication3.
SFTP stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol, a protocol that uses SSH to securely transfer files between a client and a server over a network. SFTP provides encryption, authentication and compression features to ensure the security and reliability of file transfers.
1: SSH (Secure Shell) 2: What is a VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN | Kaspersky 3: IPsec - Wikipedia :
[SFTP - Wikipedia]
NEW QUESTION # 45
Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?
- A. Social engineering
- B. Denial of service
- C. Social injection
- D. Command injection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).
NEW QUESTION # 46
What should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when an organization's virtual private network (VPN) is implemented on employees' personal mobile devices?
- A. Users may access services not supported by the VPN.
- B. Users may access the corporate network from unauthorized devices.
- C. Users may store the data in plain text on their mobile devices.
- D. Users may access services over the VPN that are network resource intensive.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When employees use personal mobile devices to access a VPN, the greatest concern for an IS auditor is the potential for sensitive data to be stored in an unsecured manner. If data is stored in plain text, it could be easily accessed by unauthorized parties if the device is lost, stolen, or compromised. This risk is heightened when the devices are not managed by the organization's IT department, which would typically enforce security policies such as encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 47
An information security procedure indicates a requirement to sandbox emails. What does this requirement mean?
- A. Guarantee rapid email delivery through firewalls.
- B. Provide a backup of emails in the event of a disaster
- C. isolate the emails and test for malicious content
- D. Ensure the emails are encrypted and provide nonrepudiation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An information security procedure that indicates a requirement to sandbox emails means that the emails need to be isolated and tested for malicious content. This is because sandboxing is a technique that creates a virtual or isolated environment, where suspicious or untrusted emails can be executed or analyzed without affecting the rest of the system or network. Sandboxing helps to detect and prevent malware, phishing, or spam attacks that may be embedded in emails, and protect the users and the organization from potential harm. The other options are not what sandboxing emails means, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as encryption and nonrepudiation (A), backup and recovery (B), or firewall and delivery (D).
NEW QUESTION # 48
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to;
- A. maintain confidentiality.
- B. ensure message integrity.
- C. ensure message accuracy.
- D. prove sender authenticity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to prove sender authenticity. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a message to sign it with their private key, which can only be decrypted by their public key. The recipient can verify that the message was sent by the sender and not tampered with by using the sender's public key.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively?
- A. The vulnerability program is reviewed annually.
- B. Remediation efforts are communicated to management
- C. Remediation efforts are prioritized.
- D. The vulnerability program is formally approved
Answer: C
Explanation:
The BEST indication that an organization's vulnerability management process is operating effectively is that remediation efforts are prioritized. This is because prioritizing remediation efforts helps to ensure that the most critical and urgent vulnerabilities are addressed first, based on their severity, impact, and exploitability. Prioritizing remediation efforts also helps to optimize the use of resources and time for mitigating vulnerabilities and reducing risks. The other options are not as indicative of an effective vulnerability management process, because they either involve communicating (A), approving (B), or reviewing C aspects that are not directly related to remediating vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 50
While risk is measured by potential activity, which of the following describes the actual occurrence of a threat?
- A. Vulnerability
- B. Target
- C. Payload
- D. Attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
An attack is the actual occurrence of a threat, which is a potential activity that could harm an asset. An attack is the result of a threat actor exploiting a vulnerability in a system or network to achieve a malicious objective.
For example, a denial-of-service attack is the occurrence of a threat that aims to disrupt the availability of a service.
NEW QUESTION # 51
in key protection/management, access should be aligned with which of the following?
- A. System limitation
- B. Role descriptions
- C. Least privilege
- D. Position responsibilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
In key protection/management, access should be aligned with the principle of least privilege. This means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks and no more. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or compromise of sensitive data or systems.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when choosing between different types of cloud services?
- A. Emerging risk and infrastructure scalability
- B. Reputation of the cloud providers
- C. Overall risk and benefits
- D. Security features available on demand
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends?
- A. Malware researchers
- B. Cybercriminals
- C. Hacktivists
- D. Script kiddies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Hacktivists are politically motivated hackers who target specific individuals or organizations to achieve various ideological ends. They may use various methods such as defacing websites, launching denial-of-service attacks, leaking confidential information, or spreading propaganda to advance their causes or protest against perceived injustices.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following is an important reason for tracing the access and origin of an intrusion once it has been detected?
- A. To determine the impact of the intrusion event
- B. To determine and correct any system weaknesses
- C. To create appropriate security awareness content to avoid recurrence
- D. To perform a root cause analysis of the intrusion event
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tracing the access and origin of an intrusion is crucial for performing a root cause analysis. This process involves identifying the underlying factors that led to the security breach. By understanding how the intrusion happened, organizations can better address the specific vulnerabilities that were exploited and implement more effective security measures to prevent similar incidents in the future.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is the MOST relevant type of audit to conduct when fraud has been detected following an incident?
- A. Cybersecurity audit
- B. Cyber insurance audit
- C. Financial audit
- D. Forensics audit
Answer: D
Explanation:
When fraud has been detected following an incident, a forensics audit is the most relevant type of audit to conduct. A forensics audit is specifically designed to investigate and uncover evidence of fraud, misconduct, or other financial crimes. It involves the use of auditing and investigative skills to examine financial records, identify irregularities, and gather evidence that can be used in legal proceedings1.
NEW QUESTION # 56
In cloud computing, which type of hosting is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment?
- A. Hybrid hosting
- B. Private hosting
- C. Public hosting
- D. Shared hosting
Answer: B
Explanation:
In cloud computing, the type of hosting that is MOST appropriate for a large organization that wants greater control over the environment is private hosting. Private hosting is a type of cloud service model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and hosted either on-premise or off-premise by a third-party provider. Private hosting offers more control over the security, performance, customization, and compliance of the cloud environment than other types of hosting.
NEW QUESTION # 57
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